Showing posts with label Gospels. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Gospels. Show all posts

Wednesday, August 1, 2012

Jesus’ Pronouncements on Divorce and Remarriage, 2 of 2


This is part 5 of 8 in a series on what the bible says concerning divorce and remarriage. For the other posts see here:
The last post looked at the various elements that comprise Jesus’ sayings on divorce and remarriage. Now I’ll place each verse within its local context.

Mt. 5:31-32
These two verses are one of six antitheses in Matthew 5 in which, each antithesis consists of Jesus presenting a well-known segment of the Law and contrasting it with a demand that transcends the Law[i]. These demands are merely pointers to a larger axiom: “You must be perfect as your heavenly father is perfect” (5:48). This is what it means to have “righteousness greater than the scribes and the Pharisees” (5:20).

This antithesis is unique in that it pairs naturally with another one, the one before it. In that one, where the Law says “Do not commit adultery”, Jesus demands that even looking lustfully at another woman is, in effect, committing adultery. In a strict sense, this isn’t true. Adultery is breaking faithfulness in a contract/covenant. Marriage covenants of the day didn’t mention anything so personal. If the man started fooling around with another woman, then the covenant would (probably) be broken and adultery would be committed. But that misses the point. The lustful glance indicates the same heart-orientation as adultery, even if to a lesser degree. Thus Jesus’ demand heightens the Law’s demand and penetrates to the very core of one’s being. It’s also important to note that “lust” is merely the translation for a word that simply means “strong desire”. The imprecision is important. Again, if one was to scrutinize and mention the exception of one’s wife – surely it’s not wrong to have strong desires for a woman if she happens to be your wife – then that misses the point. Jesus is demanding a heart re-orientation, transcending law; not creating more law.

As this is the same orientation for all six antitheses, it would be straining the text of Mt. 5:31-32, to treat it as strict law: if you do this, you automatically commit adultery. The quote in Matthew 5:31 is taken from Dt. 24:1 though the wording isn’t strictly the same. In Deuteronomy, giving the “certificate of divorce” isn’t a command, but part of the “if statement”[ii]. However, the Law did generally permit divorces, with the exception of special cases, and the orientation of Jewish society during Jesus’ day was that the only thing hinging on whether or not divorce was morally valid was whether the certificate of divorce[iii] was given. Jesus contrasts and demands that in fact divorcing one’s wife constituted adultery in the same way as “strongly desiring a woman”, whether or not the divorce certificate was given or not. In effect, “you think you’re okay because you’ve issued a certificate of divorce when in fact your heart-orientation is of committing adultery.” That Jesus, via Matthew, mentions an exception just shows a pragmatic orientation towards the this-worldliness that we live in and the fact that marriage is something that depends on two, not just one.

To wonder about what exceptions allow for non-adultery divorce is to miss the point. Jesus is demanding a heart reorientation that takes marriage more seriously than release of obligation by mere certificate. It is only from this framework that one can truly consider actual scenarios in which divorce is an acceptable solution. If one assumes the traditional translation of the 5:32b, this is reinforced by mention that marrying a woman who has been divorced also is adultery. The heart-orientation transcends how man sees to how God sees. The man thinks he has a valid divorce when in fact he doesn’t and the woman who was let go should still in fact be married. (See my previous post for a different translation.)

The summary of all the antitheses is that “you must be perfect as your heavenly father is perfect” (Mt. 5:48). How “perfection” works out in this world with regard to ethics is not always a straightforward matter of law or code[iv]. This is especially true regarding marriage and divorce since one’s actions are so dependent on the second person that extenuating circumstances may warrant drastic measures while one’s “heart” may still be in the “right place”[v].

Mt. 19:3-9
In the larger narrative of the this section of Matthew, the hard-hearted person, who cannot forgive or live in proper relation to others in Christ’s body (18.1-35), will also despise weaker people in society – in Jesus’ day, people like one’s wife (19.1-12; cf. Mal 2:14-16) or anyone’s children (19.13-15) – in contrast to Jesus, who is unimpressed by worldly status (19.16-22).

When we look specifically at the passage, much of the thought in Matthew 5:31-32 explored above is present in these verses as well. The first important thing to note here concerns the Pharisees question. What they specifically ask in verse 3, contrary to some translations, is “Is it lawful for a man to divorce for any reason at all.” Given that “they did this to test him” no doubt makes this episode connected to the Herod-Herodias episode in chapter 14 – hence, in part, mention of Jesus going back to Judea (19:1), where Herod ruled. Their specific question is not about whether divorce is permissible at all, but for what reasons divorce is permissible. This “any reason at all” mentality is merely the flip side of saying, “all you have to do is give a certificate of divorce and the divorce is valid.” In contrast, Jesus asserts the creation standard, which goes beyond human “hard-heartedness”. The standard is constant unity and mutual love and edification, not dismissal at the whim of a certificate. Those who think that marriage is merely annulled by a piece of paper find that, when they go to remarry, they’ve already committed adultery.

Mark 10:2-12
Being a parallel passage to Mt. 19:3-9, this passage in Mark shares much of the same thought as the Matthew counter-part: including the backdrop of the Herod-Herodias issue to the Pharisees’ question (Mark 6:14-29) and the overarching issue of kingdom-status within the narrative (children – 9:33-37; one’s wife – here; the rich man – 10:17-31; and Jesus, who transforms status by death on a cross – 10:35-45). The Pharisees’ question is slightly different and seems outright different at first glance: “Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife?” It seems like it’s the opposite question of Matthew 19 – Is divorce permissible at all? However, their response to Jesus’ counter-question reveals their orientation. All that’s required is a divorce certificate, as Moses permitted; that’s what makes it lawful to divorce. So their question and orientation is really no different than what Matthew attests to. Jesus’ answer is the same: what’s required is the creation standard, as Creator God made it to be - the standard of absolute unifying love, faithfulness, and edification.

Luke 16:18
Unlike the locations in Matthew and Mark, this one verse about marriage in Luke seems so out of place that even many commentators don’t know what to do with it. Even many translations struggle with it and place the verse in it’s own paragraph, which is hardly warranted. Again, within the larger narrative, there is a theme of kingdom status starting from the beginning of Luke 15. There the Pharisees and scribes gather and mock Jesus because he accepts “sinners”. The parables that follow speak of God’s acceptance (better yet, desire) being for the one who finds himself lost but repents (15:1-32) and is faithful to “the master” rather than possessions, which accord status (16:1-13 and 16:19-31).

The interlude of 16:14-18 centralizes on the authority of God’s kingdom (vv. 16-17), which should influence one’s values, and hence result in a values reversal (v. 15). Given what we know of the Pharisaic system in Matthew and Mark, that Jesus here responds with divorce equating to adultery cuts through their self-justification to condemn how they treat those of lower status, women, in the most fundamental of relationships.

Summary of Jesus’ Pronouncements
Jesus demands a reorientation of the heart - to have a heart and will that is nothing less than the perfection of Father God himself. This impacts the fabric of every aspect of our existence and being. But though Jesus’ pronouncements are absolute in this sense, this does not mean that he has given case law that covers every exception to what he has stated. In Matthew 5 he is giving a new law, which amounts to requiring an entirely different framework of the heart, not simply following a new, stricter law. In the other passages, Jesus is addressing those who are still operating under the old hard-hearted framework. As Paul says, laws are for lawbreakers (1 Timothy 1:9ff), which entails that it is not meant to further oppress those in exceptional (especially, oppressive) circumstances. The various complexities of fallen beings living in a fallen world make it certain that there will be times when living rightly does not entail living the ideal. The ideal for marriage is that two people be absolutely unified in every aspect of life as God purposed to function at creation. If there is someone who is bound to a situation where this ideal cannot be met on any level because the marriage union has been violated, the question of how to address the situation doesn’t come into view here.


[i] Some see Jesus merely correcting misapplications or misunderstandings of the Law held by contemporary Jewish leaders. However, in my experience this usually arises because of pre-commitments to the Law that are not shared by NT writers. Misunderstandings of the Law work into the mix, but Jesus’ statements transcend mere correction of misunderstanding.
[ii] It’s possible that since “write her a certificate of divorce” in Dt. 24:1 is somewhat superfluous within the long apodosis, that it was almost natural to understand the clause as an implicit command.
[iii] Per Mishnah, Gittin 9:3 “The text of writ of the divorce is as follows: “Lo, you are permitted to any man.” Rabbi Judah says, “Let this be from me your writ of divorce, letter of dismissal, and deed of liberation, that you may marry anyone you want.” The text of a writ of emancipation is as follows, “Lo, you are a free girl, lo, you are your own possession.”
[iv] This is new orientation is repeated in Paul in Eph. 3.18-19, Phil. 1.9-11, Col. 1.9-10, 1 Tim. 1.8-9, Rom. 12.1-2. For Paul, what’s required is a perfect knowledge, understanding, and discernment of God’s will and acting in accordance with that. Thus the Christian operates within the confines of love rather than law, enabled only by the Spirit – the manifestation of God’s personal dwelling with us. See also John 15:15 where we are no longer servants but friends of God.
[v] Craig Keener (Matthew, 2009, p. 466) notes that the exception clause would have been understood by Jesus’ audience as a legal charge. Nevertheless, as Keener implicitly acknowledges, this fact doesn’t obviate taking the verses as an ideal demand rather than strict law. As Keener aptly states, “… its purpose was not to lay down the law but to reassert an ideal and make divorce a sin, thereby disturbing then current complacency.” (Matthew, p. 191, quotes Davies and Allison 1988: p. 532).

Wednesday, July 25, 2012

Jesus’ Pronouncements on Divorce and Remarriage, 1 of 2


This is part 4 of 8 in a series on what the bible says concerning divorce and remarriage. For the other posts see here:
There are 4 locations in the synoptic gospels that have explicit teaching on divorce and remarriage: Matt. 5:31-32, 19:3-9; Mark 10:2-12; and Luke 16:18. Here I’ll give my own translation of the crucial verses and then explain.

Matthew 5:32 - But I declare to you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual unfaithfulness, causes his wife to be a victim of adultery; and anyone who marries a divorced woman [or: a woman who has gained a divorce for herself] commits adultery.

Matthew 19:3, 9 - Now, the Pharisees came to him and wanting to test him asked, “Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for any reason at all?” Jesus responded…. “I declare to you that whoever divorces his wife, excepting sexual unfaithfulness, and marries someone else, commits adultery.”

Mark 10.2, 12 - Then the Pharisees approached him and asked if it was lawful for a man to divorce his wife, in order to test him. Jesus responded…. “Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery against her. And if she divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery.”

Luke 16:18 - Anyone who divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery and the man who marries a woman who has been divorced from a man [or: a woman who has divorced herself from a man] commits adultery.

That there are four passages to look at simultaneously makes the task of understanding them more difficult (one only has two eyes), and that they all prima facie seem to say something only slightly different than the other compounds the difficulty. In this post I’ll explore four general points of comparison. Then in the next post I’ll situate each passage into their respective contexts.

1)    Divorce vs. Divorce and Remarry: All but Mt. 5:32 have “divorce and remarry”. It’s possible that Mt. 5:32 is simply abbreviated to allow direct contrast with the Dt. 24:1 passage quoted in the previous verse and/or because this is the only passage not set in a narrative, thereby allowing the same structure as the other 5 kingdom demands in Mt. 5:21-48. However, more important is that, in the culture, it would be inconceivable to divorce without being able to remarry and, moreover, one hardly divorced except in order to remarry[i]. There would have been little point to divorce simply for separation – remarriage can be reasonably assumed. Whereas the legal structures in place today really require divorce for separation (e.g. the need to break financial bonds) there was little need for it in 1st century Palestine. So there is little reason to think there is a substantial difference between the passages at this point.

2)    Exception Clause “Except for Sexual Immorality”: The exception clause is only found in Matthew. Many scholars these days take the clause (per redaction criticism) as added by Matthew and not original to Jesus; though, quite a few of these see it as still faithful to the intent of Jesus’ sayings. Redaction criticism or not, there is indeed little warrant for thinking it’s not faithful to Jesus’ original intent. “Sexual immorality” is best taken to refer to any sexual infidelity with regard to the marriage and is broader than adultery. An example can be found in Matthew 1 where Joseph contemplates divorcing Mary because it appeared she had been sleeping around. Though not yet married, being betrothed carried a marital-level commitment and thus would require a formal divorce to separate. At a different degree, the examples of divorce in the Mishnah, listed in the previous post, would constitute similar violation: for a married woman to go out with loose hair, for example, was to play “easy to get”, in that culture.

Thus Matthew and Jesus recognize that if faithfulness to the marriage is compromised, then divorce may be permitted. For Matthew, however, believers don’t just rigidly apply law but rather operate within a framework of forgiveness (Mt. 18:21-35) where divorce might be permitted yet not necessary. The breaking of marriage without any consideration of forgiveness on the part of the offended is wrong also.

3)    First Clause, Direction of Adultery: In Mt. 19:9 and Lk. 16:18 the man simply commits adultery, in Mk. 10:11 the man commits adultery against the wife, in Mt. 5:32 the man makes to commits adultery (traditional translation) or makes her to be the victim of adultery.

The first two passages are straightforward in thought: by the husband’s actions, he commits adultery. The Mark passage is slightly more complex but straightforward: by the husband’s actions, he commits adultery against the wife. This might be obvious to us but not so in ancient Palestine. If the woman slept around, she committed adultery against her husband. But if the man slept around, he might be said to have committed adultery against the wife’s father, and if he slept with the wife of another man, he would have committed adultery against the woman’s husband. But such action was not against the wife. Jesus comes along and levels the field, raising the woman to a new place of dignity.

The parallel clause in Mt. 5:32 is the most interesting and complex. Some translations translate as a noun with the sense of “makes her an adulteress” (NIV 1984, ASV). This errs considerably; not least because the Greek is a verb but more so because this implies the woman is now placed in the category of “one who adulters” rather than a point-in-time failure. Most translations have a better translation in the sense of “causes her to commit adultery”, placing some degree of sin on the woman for the man’s actions but placing the larger blame on the man for causing it[ii]. This sense is clearly different than the other parallels since he causes adultery rather than committing it.

However, there seems to be a better translation: strictly speaking, “causes her to be adultered” or better put, “causes her to be the victim of adultery” (see NIV 2011). That is, the thought in Mark is heightened: it is not simply that the man sins against his wife but rather the woman is a victim of the husband’s sin. This more accurately accounts for the fact that the verb is passive and so should carry a passive sense. The standard translation of the woman committing adultery is based on the standard Greek usage of the verb where, when the man is subject the verb is active (or a unique Greek “middle” voice) and when the woman is subject the verb is passive. However, with R.T. France[iii] and Craig Blomberg[iv], a review of the evidence of Leviticus 20:10 (Septuagint vs. Hebrew Text), Jeremiah 3:9, Hosea 4:13-14, and Sirach 23:23, and the unusual language here in Mt. 5:32, strongly suggests that the woman here is the object of the sin, not the subject who is forced into sin by her husband’s actions[v].

4)    Second Clause, Object of Adultery: Mt. 19:9 simply omits this clause[vi]. Mk. 10:11 simply parallels the first clause: if the wife divorces and remarries, she commits adultery too. Mt. 5:32 and Lk. 16:18 have essentially the same thought. Every translation has something along the lines of “whoever marries a woman who has been divorced commits adultery”.

There is another possible translation. The participle used for a “woman who has been divorced” is usually taken as a passive participle. However, its form could be a middle voice also – a voice used in Greek where, roughly speaking, the subject and object of the verb have the same referent. How would this work then? In a Jewish cultural context, a woman couldn’t divorce her husband, only vice-versa. However, if she wanted a divorce, she could strongly influence her husband or even the court that her husband should divorce her even if he objected[vii]. She might even commit something that, by the Mishnah, would force her husband to divorce her. This would fit the sense of a Greek middle voice: the woman who “has gained a divorce for herself”. This sense is further suggested by the redundant “from a man” in Luke[viii]. The sense of this clause, then, is that the man who divorces such a woman commits adultery since he has been the object to cause the breaking of a marriage.

The use of this word for divorce is rare, but we find the same vein of thought in a passage by Josephus[ix] where he mentions a quarrel by Salome, one of Herod the Great’s granddaughters, with her husband Costobarus. Josephus mentions that she “soon [after] sent him a document dissolving their marriage, which was not in accordance with Jewish law.” The word for “dissolve” is the same word for “divorce” found here in these passages, and is also in the middle voice[x]. Note that this incident refers to the same family as that recorded in Matthew 14. Both passages condemn the same family for their marital actions.

I should add that I’m arguing for a reading that almost no commentator has adopted for this clause[xi], so caution is warranted, though I think the small evidence we do have is quite suggestive. This reading of the passage also has an advantage in that it makes Mt. 5:32, Lk. 16:18, and Mk. 10:11 all say the same thing with the exception that Mark’s reading has shifted to account for speaking to a Gentile audience, where, per Roman law, a woman could divorce a man outright, so he uses an active verb.

Yet, in the possibility that I’m wrong, the reader is directed to my next post where the rhetorical context warrants a bit more nuanced reading than simply claiming absolute law. In the end, taking this as an absolute rule misses the point.



[i] There are some who essentially argue that Jesus is really referring here to what we’d have to call separation - remarriage is not allowed at all. The problem is that the sense of divorce is without qualification referring to absolute breaking of the marriage. When one is no longer married, one is no longer married. Remarriage is thereby allowed by default. David Instone-Brewer makes the point well that (in this case) Jesus (and Matthew) would have to have been more explicit to be referring to a divorce that only amounted to separation.
[ii] That she is forced into sin is usually explained by saying that the divorced woman was forced to remarry due to the poor financial circumstances. However, this has been shown by Instone-Brewer (Divorce and Remarriage in the Bible) to not be true, generally speaking. If she was not to blame, she would have the dowry returned to her, which probably would have sustained her comfortably for a year or more. And she usually could have returned home.
[iii] The Gospel of Matthew (NICNT), 2007, pp. 192, 206ff and personal correspondence. See also John Nolland, The Gospel of Matthew (NIGTC), 2005, pp. 240ff.
[iv] See his blog post Victims of Adultery
[v] The verb is μοιχευω (moicheuo) and translates [an (na’aph) in the LXX. In Lev. 20:10 the man is the subject and primary perpetrator. In the last clause, two participles of μοιχευω are used: active for the man and middle (maybe passive) for the woman (the Hebrew participles are active for both but the verb doesn’t occur in the passive); both are sentenced to death. In Jeremiah 3:9 and Hosea 4:13-14 a woman is the subject and μοιχευω is used in the active voice. Sirach 23:23 interestingly uses a passive μοιχευω but the woman is the subject and primary perpetrator. However, the normal passive sense is probably still retained: in a sense, she causes herself to be adultered. Compare and contrast here in Mt. 5:32 where the husband is the primary perpetrator leaving the wife the one violated.
[vi] There is little doubt that the textual basis for the KJV is incorrect here.
[vii] Instone-Brewer, pp. 85-90
[viii] See also the discussion on the same phrase used in 1 Cor. 7:10.
[ix] Jewish Antiquities 15.259.
[x] Grk. ajpoluomevnh to;n gavmon. Since the verb is middle, it appears that to;n gavmon is an adverbial accusative.
[xi] Though see John Nolland, The Gosple of Matthew (NIGTC), 2005.
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